Post by firouz on Jul 26, 2009 14:27:31 GMT -5
Okay Doubar. So to start, what is the most important thing to know about biology (this is introductory but college level)?
And what is the best way to study? I only have three weeks to cover some 1500 pages of intro to biology (BIO 181 and BIO 183)?
Here is the sample exams:
Biology 183 Print Name__________________________
Spring 2000
2/15/00
Lecture Exam I
Matching: Each answer is used only once. Please write answer legibly to the left of the number. 2 points each
_____ 1. Stigma A. animal that functions reproductively as both male and female at the same time
_____ 2. Sequential hermaphrodite B. Within a pollen grain, will develop into 2 sperm cells
_____ 3. Generative cell C. Haploid cells produced within the sporangia of the anther via meiosis
_____ 4. Simultaneous hermaphrodite
D. Tip of female reproductive organ of a flower, often sticky to receive pollen
_____ 5. Ovary E. Diploid cell within sporangium which undergoes meiosis to form female gametes in a flower
_____ 6. Microspore F. In flowers, portion of carpel in which egg-containing ovules develop
_____ 7. Polar nuclei G. Within the embryo sac of a flower, when fertilized, becomes a 3n cell
_____ 8. Suspensor H. Column of cells that feeds embryo with nutrients absorbed from endosperm
_____ 9. Megasporocyte I. Long slender stalk of female reproductive organ of a flower, leading to ovule
_____ 10. Style J. Animal that functions reproductively as one sex and then the other.
Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each. Please circle your answer or
write the letter out to the left-hand side. 2 points each
11. When does crossing over start to take place?
A. Prophase I
B. Anaphase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Prophase II
E. Anaphase II
12. The male gametophyte of an angiosperm contains two diploid cells. One of these
cells is the __________________ which divides to produce two sperm cells (nuclei):
A. Tube cell
B. Microsporocyte
C. Spermatocyte
D. Generative Cell
13. In angiosperms, the embryo develops through progressively larger stages that are
identified by their shape. The stage where seedling leaves (cotylegons) are just
beginning to develop is the
A. globular shape
B. heart shape
C. torpedo shape
D. meristem shape
14. Homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of a dividing cell during
A. mitosis
B. meiosis I
C. meiosis II
D. fertilization
E. fission
15. Cytoplasmic components (mRNA, ribosomes, proteins) of the egg cell have
significant effects on the development of
A. angiosperm embryos
B. mammalian embryos
C. both angiosperms and mammals
D. neither
16. Gender change in the bluehead wrasse always is from female to male. This form of
gender changeis known as:
A. Heterogamy
B. Protogyny
C. Protandry
D. Asexual
17. Angiosperms are sexually reproducing organisms that have a type of life cycle called
alternation of generations. In this life cycle, meiosis occurs in the
A. Ovule
B. Zygote
C. Anther
D. Structures named in both A and C
18. Sexual reproduction occurs in many different species of organis. Which
characteristic do ALL sexually reproducing organisms have in common?
A. separate diploid (2n) male and female parents
B. formation of ovaries and testes
C. production of gametophytes
D. meiotic cell division
19. A seed develops from
A. an ovum B. an embryo C. an ovary D. a pollen grain E. an ovule
20. A plant that is self-incompatible has a genotype S5S9 for the S-locus. It receives
pollen from a plant that is S3S9. Which of the following is most likely to occur?
A. all of the pollen will germinate, forming pollen tubes
B. about half of the pollen will germinate
C. none of the pollen will germinate
21. The germinating pollen grain produces a pollen tube that delivers two sperm cells
(nuclei) into the embryo sac. Double fertilization takes place and produces the:
A. megaspore and microspore
B. zygote and endosperm
C. gametophyte and sporophyte
D. endoderm and mesoderm
22. Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during
A. the flow phase of the menstrual cycle
B. the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
C. the period surrounding ovulation
D. the end of the corpus luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
23. The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in the
A. formation of a fertilization membrane
B. production of a fast block to polyspermy
C. release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell
D. generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell
E. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei
24. There are several analogies (similarities) of sexual reproduction and embryonic
development in mammals and angiosperms. Which of the following is a correct analogy
in these two types of organisms:
A. organs develop in both the mammalian embryo and the angiosperm embryo
B. both types of embryos use stored food during development
C. cell migration in both types of embryos produces the germ (primary) tissue layers.
D. the analogies described in both A and B are correct
25. Which phase of meoisis is being described by the following sentence?
Centromeres of sister chromatids separate and each sister (now individual chromosomes)
move toward opposite poles of the cell.
A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II
Fill in the Blank: please write the one word answer in the space provided. 3 points
each (spelling counts)
26. Microspore is to pollen as ____________________ is to embryo sac.
27. The very familiar dimorphic pattern of sexual reproduction where ther is a distinct
female and male parent is referred to as ______________________.
28. The type of sequential hermaphrodite wher the organism is a male first and then
changes to a female as it gets older and larger is called _____________________.
29. The tip of the sperm cell head contains enzymes and other proteins to help it break
through the egg membrane. This tip is called the _______________________.
30. In angiosperms, the diploid microsporocyte undergoes __________________ to form
4 haploid microspores.
31. Sperm + 2 polar nuclei = ____________________.
32. In males, FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells to continue __________________.
33. In sea urchins, the release of Ca++ and the subsequent hardening of the fertilization
membrane is the __________________ reaction.
34. After fertilization, cleavage of the zygote forms a solid sphere of cells known as the
______________________.
35. As development and cell migration of the embryo continue, the hollowed ball of cells
becomes a 3-layered structure known as the ________________________.
Short Answer Essay: 3-4 sentences, can be in the form of lists or drawn figures if
appropriate. 5 points each
36. Describe 2 kinds of asexual reproduction and give an example of an animal or plant
for each.
37. In mammalian reproduction, the fusion of egg and sperm yields the zygote. Identify
and describe the stages and processes that lead to an embryo that contains 3 germ
(primary) tissue layers.
Bonus Questions
1. The name of my lab instructor is ________________________ (first name is fine).
(1 point)
2. Name any two basketball players (men or women) playing for NCState this year.
________________________ (1 point)
________________________ (1 point)
3. Name any two teams (other that NCState) in the Atlantic Coast Conference.
________________________ (1 point)
________________________ (1 point)
I have neither given nor received unauthorized help on this exam.
____________________________
Student Signature
Biology 183 Print Name__________________________
Spring 2000
03/09/00
Lecture Exam II
Matching: Each answer is used only once. Please write legibly to the left of the number. 2 points each.
_____ 1. Gastrin A. Number of NADH molecules formed per pyruvic acid molecule in the Krebs cycle
_____ 2. Lipase B. Responsible for digesting starches in the mouth and small intestine
_____ 3. Ten C. Number of NADH molecules formed per pyruvic acid molecule in the Krebs cycle
_____ 4. Four D. Inherits peristalsis in stomach
_____ 5. GIP E. Produces 3 ATP per molecule in the electron transport chain
_____ 6. Three F. Stimulates the pancreatic and gall bladder release of enzymes and bile
_____ 7. Amylase G. Total (not net #) of ATPs generated in glycolysis
_____ 8. NADH H. Responsible for digesting fats in the small intestine
_____ 9. Two I. Number of FADH2 molecules formed per glucose molecule in the Krebs cycle
_____ 10. CCK J. Number of NADH molecules formed per glucose molecule in glycolysis, pyruvic acid conversion, and Krebs cycle combined.
Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each. Please circle your answer or write the letter out to the left-hand side. 2 points each
11. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
Pyruvate + NADH + H+ lactate + NAD+
A. oxygen D. lactate
B. NADH E. pyruvate
C. NAD+
12. Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration?
A. Krebs cycle
B. electron transport chain
C. glycolysis
D. synthesis of acetyl CoA from pyruvate
E. reduction of pyruvate to lactate
13. The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in oxidative phosphorylation is
A. oxygen
B. water
C. NAD+
D. pyruvate
E. ADP
14. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle with
A. light energy
B. CO2 and ATP
C. H2O and NADPH
D. ATP and NADPH
E. sugar and O2
15. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
A. NADPH O2 CO2
B. NADPH chlorophyll Calvin cycle
C. NADPH electron transport chain O2
D. H2O photosystem I photosystem II
E. H2O NADPH Calvin cycle
16. Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
A. Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment
B. Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs
C. Only heterotrophs have mitochondria
D. Only autotrophs can nourish themselves beginning with CO2 and other nutrients that are entirely inorganic
E. Only heterotrophs require oxygen
17. During glycolysis and cellular respiration, 2 ATP are consumed to get the process started. At which step does this occur?
A. glycolysis
B. Pyruvate conversion
C. Krebs Cycle
D. Electron Transport Chain
18. Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein will drain first into the
A. vena cava
B. left atrium
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle
E. right ventricle
19. The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by
A. chloroplasts
B. parenchyma cells
C. guard cells
D. thylakoids
20. Chloroplast b are yellow-green and have what function?
A. absorb and dissipate light for photoprotection
B. acts as the primary e- acceptor
C. broadens the spectrum of light that can drive photosynthesis
21. Which organism would have the fastest heart rate?
A. crocodile
B. fish
C. snake
D. bird
22. The electron vacancies in the photosystem II reaction center are filled by
A. transfer of e- from NADPH
B. splitting of H2O molecule
C. formation of glucose in the Calvin Cycle
D. transfer of e- from cytochrome complex
23. Cyclic e-flow
A. allows more NADPH to be synthesized for use in the Calvin Cycle
B. allows e- to fill hole in P700 left by light energy exciting e- to higher energy level
C. allows production of O2 for release into the atmosphere
D. allows more ATP to be synthesized for use in the Calvin Cycle
24. Gases, nutrients, and waste products are exchanged between cells and blood vessels at
A. capillaries
B. veins
C. arteries
D. heart
25. The metabolic pathway that will continue whether or not oxygen is present is
A. glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. electron transport chain
C. B and C
26. The Calvin Cycle takes place in the
A. thylakoids
B. epidermis
C. grana
D. stroma
27. In Phase 1 (carbon fixation) of the Calvin Cycle, CO2 molecules diffuse through the stomata and bind to
A. Glucose
B. RuBP
C. ATP
D. H2O
28. Fungus, which is an example of an organism that feeds on dead and decaying organic material, can be described as a(n)
A. absorptive feeder
B. suspension feeder
C. substrate feeder
D. fluid feeder
29. If two organisms were roughly the same size, which one would probably have the longer digestive tract?
A. carnivore
B. herbivore
C. absorptive feeder
D. substrate feeder
30. The Weddell seal is adapted to sustained underwater swimming due to all of the following EXCEPT
A. has more blood volume /kg body weight
B. has the ability to stockpile oxygenated blood in its spleen
C. can increase O2 consumption rate by decreasing metabolism
D. has increased myoglobin to store O2 in muscles
Fill in the Blank: Please write the answer in the space provided. 3 points each
31. The ____________________________ in the fish gill ensures a constant gradient of O2 which increases the efficiency of O2 uptake.
32. Air enters an insect’s tracheae through body surface openings called ____________.
33. In terrestrial vertebrates, systemic circulation pumps oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissues and _____________________ pumps deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
34. ________________________ occurs in the mitochondria using acteyl CoA to make ATP, CO2, NADH, and FADH2.
35. In a four-chambered heart, the ______________________ pumps with the highest pressure and therefore has the thickest muscle layer.
36. Thylakoids, containing chlorophyll and stacked into granum, are surrounded by a dense fluid called ______________________.
37. _______________________ tend to have longer intestines than carnivores of similar size.
38. _______________________ are triggered to open by light, depletion of CO2, and an internal biological clock.
39. If cardiac output is 10L/min and heart rate is 100 beats/min, then stroke volume is _____________________. (must use correct units to get full credit)
40. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain are examples of _________________________, a breakdown or release of energy.
Short Answer Essay: 3-4 sentences, can be in the form of lists or drawn figures if appropriate. 5 points each
41. Describe non-cyclic electron flow.
42. Describe 3 reasons why the oxygen-hemoglobin binding affinity would be less.
Bonus Essay: Up to 5 points
Trace deoxygenated blood from veins to lungs in a mammalian heart.
Biology 183
Fall 2000
11/16/00
Lecture Exam III
Matching: Each answer is used only once. Please write legibly to the left of the number. 2 points each.
_____1. TSH A. responsible for seed and bud germination, stem and leaf growth (remember foolish seedling disease)
_____2. Growth Hormone B. promotes cell enlargement by plasticizing cell wall
_____3. Cortisol C. hormone released from the pituitary, targeting the thyroid gland
_____4. Insulin D. response to light, controlled by auxins and biological clocks in part
_____5. IAA E. stimulates metabolism, needed for molting, metamorphosis, and growth
_____6. Gravitropism F. helps maintain blood glucose homeostasis, increases glucose uptake by cells
_____7. Gibberellins G. primarily seen in plant roots, helps orient them toward soil
_____8. Thyroid Hormone H. stimulates skeletal and tissue growth, triggered by hpothalamus release of GHRH
_____9. Abscisic Acid I. Inhibits plant growth, protects dormant bud in winter, closes stomata in times of water stress
_____10. Phototropism J. released in response to long-term stress
Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each. Please circle your answer or write the letter out to the left-hand side. 2 points each.
11. Some plants are triggered to flower by the increasing time of daylight. The signal for flowering could be released experimentally earlier than normal in a long-day plant to flashes of
A. green light during the night B. red light during the night
C. green light during the day D. far red light during the day
E. red light during the day
12. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the anterior pituitary?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. GH
D. prolactin
E. TH
13. The key difference between an ectotherm and an endotherm is that
A. ectotherms generate energy mainly from fermentation, endotherms mainly from cellular respiration
B. ectotherms are mostly aquatic animals, endotherms are mostly terrestrial
C. ectotherms warm their bodies mainly by absorbing environmental heat, endotherms mainly use metabolic heat to warm their bodies
D. ectotherms are "cold-blooded" animals with body temperatures that cannot reach the high body temperatures of endotherms
E. ectotherms are all invertebrates, endotherms are all vertebrates
14. Which of the following correctly describes a case of osmoregulation?
A. body fluids that are isoosmotic with the external environment
B. discharge of excess water in a hypoosmotic environment
C. excretion of salt in a hypoosmotic environment
D. expenditure of energy to convert ammonia to less toxic wastes
E. secretion of drugs and reabsorption of nutrients by the proximal tubule
15. The majority of water and salt filtered in the nephron is reabsorbed by
A. the transport epithelia of the proximal tubule
B. diffusion from the descending limb of the loop of Henle into the hyperosmotic interstitial fluid of the medulla
C. active transport across the transport epithelium of the thick upper segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
D. selective secretion and diffusion across the distal tubule
E. diffusion from the collecting duct into the increasing osmotic gradient of the renal medulla
16. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about hormones?
A. hormones are chemical messengers that travel to target cells through the circulatory system.
B. hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions
C. hormones are secreted by specialized cells usually located in endocrine glands
D. hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same general function
E. hormones are often regulated through feedback loops
17. A distinctive feature of the mechanism of action of steroid hormones is that
A. these hormones are regulated by feedback loops
B. target cells react more rapidly to these hormones than to local regulators
C. these hormones affect metabolism
D. these hormones bind with specific receptor proteins on target-cell plasma membranes
E. these hormones bind to cytoplasmic receptors
18. Which of the following occurs when a stimulus depolarizes a neuron's membrane?
A. Na+ diffuses out of the cell.
B. The action potential approaches zero.
C. The membrane potential changes from the resting potential to a voltage closer to the threshold potential.
D. The depolarization is all or none.
E. The inside of the cell becomes more negative in charge relative to the outside of the cell.
19. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are located on the
A. tips of axon
B. axon membranes in the regions of the nodes of Ranvier
C. postsynaptic membrane
D. membranes of synaptic vesicles
E. presynaptic membrane
20. Environmental factors will trigger various growth substances to be released in plants. Which of the following is typically not an environmental stress?
A. Change in temperature
B. Change in light
C. Lack of Nitrogen in soil
D. Lack of Oxygen in soil
21. Transpirational pull in a plant depends on all of the following EXCEPT
A. bulk flow
B. cohesion
C. adhesion
D. diffusion
22. Which of the following evolutionary trends occurs in the vertebrate brain?
A. Increasing sophistication and complexity of the hindbrain
B. Relative size of the brain increases in reptiles and birds
C. Relative size of the brain increases in birds and mammals
D. More sophisticated behavior is associated with a decrease in size of the cerebrum
23. Myelin sheaths are formed from
A. dendrites
B. axons
C. glia
D. nodes of Ranvier
24. ADH acts on the nephron by
A. decreasing the # of water channels on the proximal tubule
B. decreasing the # of water channels on the collecting duct
C. increasing the # of water channels on the proximal tubule
D. increasing the # of water channels on the collecting duct
25. The distal convoluted tubule receives filtrate directly from the
A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. ascending limb of the loop of Henle
C. descending limb of the loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
26. At the proximal tubule, all of the following are absorbed EXCEPT
A. urea
B. Na+
C. H20
D. Glucose
27. This growth substance was discovered in rice plants infected with a fungus. This fungus promoted growth without maturation and led to the rice plants growing taller and eventually tipping over without producing any rice.
A. auxin
B. cytokinins
C. abscisic acid
D. ethylene
E. gibberellins
28. Unlike an earthworm’s metanephridia, a mammalian nephron
A. forms urine by changing the composition of fluid inside the tubule
B. functions in both osmoregulation and the excretion of nitrogenous wastes
C. is intimately associated with a capillary network
D. has a transport epithelium
E. processes blood instead of coelomic fluid
29. Amphibians regulate body temperature almost exclusively by
A. countercurrent blood flow
B. sweating and panting
C. moving to favorable sites
D. decreasing or increasing metabolism
30. Most aquatic animals, including many fishes, eliminate their nitrogenous wastes in the form of
A. ammonia
B. urea
C. uric acid
D. proteins
Fill in the Blank: please write the answer in the space provided. 3 points each.
31. __________________ is a substance in plants which degrades cell walls, decreases chlorophyll, and triggers fruit ripening.
32. If a plant is undergoing heat stress and its water supply is plentiful, the plant will increase ___________________ to alleviate this stress.
33. _________________ are organisms that absorb heat from their surroundings because they are unable to generate enough heat through metabolism.
34. The ________________ is a ball of capillaries inside Bowman's capsule which leads to the proximal tubule.
35. The __________________________ (be specific) is the part of the nephron which is relatively impermeable to salt and therefore, the filtrate increases in osmolality at this stage of the filtration process.
36. The waxy barrier separating the cortex from the endodermic vascular tissue in a plant is known as the ____________________________.
37. Water and minerals absorbed by the roots and traveling to the vascular tissue via the cytoplasm is known as the __________________ route.
38. The ________________ are short, tapered, and branched and are the parts of the neuron that receive the sensory input.
39. ____________________ wrap around the axons like insulation and help increase the velocity of action potential propogation.
40. The _____________________ is the time that no matter how large the stimulus, another action potential cannot occur because the Na+ inactivation gate is closed.
Short Answer Essay: 3-4 sentences, can be in the form of lists or drawn figures if appropriate. 5 points each.
41. Describe the mechanism of action of a peptide hormone. Start with the peptide being released into the circulatory system and end with the biological effect being triggered.
42. Describe an action potential (drawing is appropriate) labeling the depolarization, repolarization, undershoot, and resting state. When are channels open and closed?
Bonus Question: 5 points
Describe how chemical communication (chemical synapse) occurs starting with the action potential reaching the end of an axon and finishing with the action potential being propagated to the next neuron.
1. Sex-linked disorders such as color blindness and hemophilia are:
a. expressed only in men
b. caused by genes on the X chromosome
c. caused by genes on the autosome
d. caused by genes on the Y chromosome
e. both answers a and b are correct
2. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive trait. Imagine that your friend Roger has cystic fibrosis but that his parents do not. What do you know about Roger's alleles and those of his parents at the cystic fibrosis locus of their DNA?
a. This information is insufficient to allow me to conclude anything about the cystic fibrosis alleles in the DNA of Roger's parents.
b. Roger is heterozygous and his parents are homozygous at the cystic fibrosis locus.
c. Roger is homozygous and his parents are heterozygous at the cystic fibrosis locus.
d. This information is insufficient to allow me to conclude anything about the cystic fibrosis alleles in Roger’s DNA.
3. Some people are said to be "carriers" of genetic disorders. What does this mean?
a. The individual is heterozygous for the disorder, and the allele for the disorder is dominant.
b. The individual is heterozygous for the disorder, and the allele for the disorder is recessive.
c. The individual is homozygous for the disorder, but is protected by the presence of an immunity gene.
d. The individual is homozygous for the disorder.
4. The following represents the inheritance of dentogenesis imperfecta. Which of the following is true?
a. This is a dominant; sex-linked trait
b. This is a dominant; autosomal trait
c. The father is heterozygous
d. All of the above
e. Answers b and c are correct
5. Which of the following best describes alternation of generations, the life cycle employed by most land plants?
a. A haploid adult produces haploid gametes by meiosis, which fuse at fertilization and produce a new diploid adult via mitosis.
b. A diploid organism produces haploid cells (spores) by meiosis, and these cells divide by mitosis to produce a haploid organism that produces haploid gametes by mitosis.
c. A diploid adult produces haploid gametes by meiosis, which fuse at fertilization and produce a new diploid adult via mitosis
d. A diploid cell undergoes meiosis to produce a haploid cell that produces a haploid adult by mitosis. The adult then produces haploid gametes by mitosis
6. The principal function of the petals of a flower is to:
a. produce pollen grains
b. produce the female gametophyte
c. attract pollinators
d. protect the flower body
7. A seed contains each of the following except a(n):
a. Seed coat
b. Stoma
c. Food source
d. Embryonic plant
8. In the life cycle of a plant, spores are produced by the:
a. Sporophyte
b. Gametes
c. Eggs
d. Gametophyte
9. Which of the following is true of double fertilization?
a. One sperm cell fuses with the tube cell to form the embryo, and a second sperm cell fuses with a generative cell to form the endosperm.
b. Double fertilization is a rare event in flowering plants that results in the production of two identical embryos.
c. The first fertilization event results in the production of a zygote, and a second fertilization event occurs several days or weeks later to produce a second zygote, which degenerates to the endosperm.
d. One sperm cell fuses with the egg to form a zygote, and a second sperm cell fuses with the polar nucleus to form the endosperm.
10. Which of the following characteristics differentiates a retrovirus from other types of viruses?
a. Glycoproteins
b. viral envelope
c. RNA
d. reverse transcriptase
11. Some viruses use the host cell to produce an outer shell of glycoproteins. They are known as:
a. Retroviruses
b. Enveloped viruses
c. Lytic viruses
d. Bacteriophages
12. Organisms which come in various shapes and sizes, can live virtually anywhere, are unicellular, prokaryotic, can reproduce on their own, and can be either beneficial or pathogenic:
a. Viruses
b. Protozoans
c. Bacteria
d. Bacteriophages
13. Tanya vacationed in Zaire, Africa this past summer. During her stay, she was warned about a virus that causes hemorrhagic fever and a rash. This virus is 50-90% fatal and is called:
a. Ebola
b. HIV
c. Hantavirus
d. Lyme’s disease
14. I used to conduct research with deer mice, mostly looking for their nests. I should have been careful, because there is a virus that is transmitted by direct contact with an infected mouse’s nest or droppings. This virus can cause fever, severe muscle aches, and respiratory distress. There is no known cure or treatment. It’s called:
a. Ebola
b. HIV
c. Hantavirus
d. SARS
15. Currently, we are seeing threats from a type of virus transmitted by infected poultry. It causes fever, cough, severe respiratory distress, but it’s not easily transmitted from person-to-person:
a. SARS
b. Hantavirus
c. Avian Influenza
d. Ebola
16. Martin had some home-canned food the night before, and he developed a high fever and droopy lips and eyes. He is most likely suffering from:
a. Tetanus
b. Botulism
c. Lyme’s disease
d. Hantavirus
17. Larry was out working on his farm, when he stepped on a rusty nail. A few days later he started suffering from muscular spasms, mainly in the back and the jaw—his body could not relax. When he went to the doctor, his diagnosis was:
a. Botulism
b. Lyme’s disease
c. Ebola
d. Tetanus
18. Cindy was out hiking in the Northeast when she noticed some ticks on her body. She removed them and didn’t think much about it. Later, she noticed a bull’s-eye rash on her lower back. She’s probably contracted which disease?
a. Botulism
b. Lyme’s disease
c. Ebola
d. Tetanus
19. A bacterium, which poses threats for bioterrorism, is found in the ground and is primarily a risk to herbivores. Infection is through direct exposure to the infected animal and it cannot be transmitted from person to person. It can be contracted through the skin—cutaneous infection, or through inhalation:
a. Botulinum
b. Anthrax
c. Tetanus
d. Lyme’s
20. Which hormone stimulates the ovulation event?
a. HCG
b. Estrogen
c. LH
d. Progesterone
21. What type of asexual reproduction involves haploid eggs maturing into haploid adults?
a. Budding
b. Parthenogenesis
c. Fragmentation
d. Fission
22. Which of the following events must occur to maximize the likelihood of a successful mating, if the mating is outside the bodies of the parents?
a. A special spermatophore must be produced by the male.
b. Sperm and eggs must be released at the same time.
c. Sperm and eggs must be released within the same limited area
d. Both b and c answers are correct
23. During oogenesis, what would you predict is the functional advantage of the production of only one "large" viable egg, as opposed to four "small" viable eggs?
a. A large egg has more cytoplasm and nutrients, increasing the chance that a fertilized egg will complete development.
b. A large egg is easier for sperm to penetrate.
c. It takes less energy to produce one large viable egg.
d. None of the above responses are correct.
24. The allantois is an extraembryonic membrane to carry out which function:
a. Gas exchange
b. Waste removal
c. Protection
d. Nourishment
25. By the end of gastrulation:
a. The positions of the body’s axes are established
b. The gut has formed
c. The embryonic tissues are arranged in layers
d. All of the above
26. Repetitive segments which develop during organogenesis:
a. Somites
b. Neural crests
c. Blastomeres
d. Neural plates
27. During oocyte maturation, the oocyte remains suspended in which meiotic phase until fertilization occurs?
a. Meiosis I prophase
b. Meiosis II prophase
c. Meiosis I metaphase
d. Meiosis II metaphase
28. Fertilization occurs in the:
a. Fallopian tubes (oviduct)
b. Endometrium
c. Uterus
d. Vagina
29. Which of the following is the hormone secreted during labor under the stimulus of high estrogen levels.
a. Oxytocin
b. Progesterone
c. HCG
d. GnRH
30. Implantation of the fertilized egg occurs in the ___ and the stage of development is ___:
a. Oviduct; four-cell stage
b. Endometrium; blastocyst
c. Corpus luteum; blastocyst
d. Uterus; morula
31. The embryo implants itself using which structure:
a. Trophoblast
b. Trophomore
c. Placenta
d. Villi
32. Over-the-counter pregnancy tests test for concentrations of which hormone?
a. GnRH
b. LH
c. FSH
d. HCG
33. Before the placenta is fully developed, the embryo receives nourishment from the:
a. Chorion
b. Endometrium
c. Corpus luteum
d. Amnion
34. Which structure adds the final secretions to semen as it moves out of the male reproductive tract?
a. Epididymis
b. Seminal vesicle
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral gland
Part II—Short answers, matching, fill-in-the-blanks, diagram identification
35. Geneticists study patterns of inheritance in human families to learn about genetic diseases. A chart showing how a trait is inherited over several generations of a family is called a ____________________.
36. A particle between 0.05 and 0.2 microns containing genetic material enclosed in a protein coat is called a ___________________________.
37. ___________________________ is a kind of virus that can infect bacteria.
38. ______________________________ is a type of retrovirus which attacks helper T-cells, therefore crippling the immune system.
39. The embryo sac is contained within the __________, which is located inside the __________.
40. In flowering plants, the male gametophyte is known as the _____________ and it is composed of the following two structures:_______________________.
41. _____________________________ occurs when a pollen grain lands on a stigma
42. ________________________________are the parts of a plant embryo that absorb food molecules from the endosperm
43. The ________________________________________ secretes LH and FSH
44. The ovarian structure that secretes both progesterone and estrogen is ______________________.
45. Enzymes from the sperm digest protective layers that surround the egg. These enzymes are housed in the ___________________________ of the sperm?
46. In humans, spermatogenesis yields ___________________ sperm for each diploid sex cell, and oogenesis yields _______________ secondary oocyte(s) for each sex cell.
47. During the _________________ phase in the ovaries, the secondary oocyte is getting ready for ovulation. Which uterine phase(s) overlap with this ovarian phase?____ _________________________________
48. At the onset of puberty, testosterone is produced in the _________________ under direct control of the ______________________, which is produced in the anterior pituitary gland.
49. The developmental phase which follows gastrulation and is marked by the development of rudimentary organs is known as ________________________________.
50. The combined processes of cleavage and gastrulation are known as ________ ______________________.
51. Birds and fish both have a lot of yolk and. We call this side of the developing embryo the __________________ pole.
52. ______________________ is caused by signal molecules from nearby cells which trigger observable cellular changes through gene expression in the target cell
53. The unfertilized egg has ______________________ that regulate the expression of genes that affect the developmental fate of the cell.
54. Anne Boleyn, King Henry VIII's second wife, was beheaded because she did not provide him with a son as an heir. Why should King Henry have blamed himself and not his wife? Explain.
55. Mr. and Mrs. Smith have just arrived home with their new baby. As soon as they walk in the door, they get a call from the hospital maternity ward. The nurse who discharged the Smiths is calling to say she is now worried that she sent them home with the wrong baby. They return to the hospital for a battery of blood tests to clear up the confusion. Help them interpret the results of the blood test. Could baby Emma be their daughter? Why or why not?
Individual
ABO Blood Type
MN Blood Type Hemoglobin Type
(H—normal; h—mutant hemoglobin, sickle cell)
Mr. Smith Type A MM Hh
Mrs. Smith Type B MN HH
Baby Emma Type O NN Hh
Note—Both blood type systems are examples of codominance and sickle-cell anemia is an example of an autosomal recessive trait that also exhibits codominance. Those people with Hh make both normal and defective hemoglobin (they suffer some symptoms, but those who are hh suffer severe detrimental effects).
56. The following is a pedigree of a family with Huntington’s disease.
a. Write the possible genotypes of the initial parents.
b. Would you say that this trait is dominant or recessive? Explain.
c. Would you say that this trait is autosomal or sex-linked? Explain.
57. How are viruses able to reproduce when they lack the organelles needed to create new genetic material and protein coats?
58. List two distinguishing characteristics of viruses:
59. Bacteriophages can be lytic or lysogenic. Explain the difference.
60. Using the figure below, explain double fertilization. (Make sure to include the following terms in your description—pollen grain, pollen tube cell, sperm cells, endosperm, polar bodies, egg, haploid, diploid, triploid.)
61. In the following diagram showing fertilization of a mammalian egg cell by a sperm cell:
a. Label the following structures:
i. Egg
ii. zona pellucida
iii. sperm
b. Label and explain the acrosomal reaction
c. Label and explain the cortical reaction
62. The drug RU-486 (“abortion pill”) blocks progesterone receptors in the uterus. Based on your knowledge of the female reproductive cycle, why does this drug terminate pregnancy in humans, even after implantation has occurred?
63. The male reproductive structures that are found within the scrotal sac are responsible for the formation of sperm. Use the following diagram to do the following:
• Label the structures on the image below (a-d).
• What are sertoli cells?
• What are Leydig cells?
64. Use the diagram below to do the following:
a. Indicate the phase of development depicted in the diagram below
b. Label the indicated parts:
c. Define each labeled part
65. Reproductive Structures:
Label and give the function or describe the following on the diagram below:
i. Corpus luteum—
ii. Follicle—
iii. Maturing oocyte—
iv. Graafian follicle—
v. Ovulation—
Follicular phase—
Luteal phase—
66. On the following diagram of the female reproductive cycle:
a. Label the follicular phase, luteal phase, secretory phase, and the corpus luteum.
b. Explain what happens during the luteal phase
c. Explain what triggers ovulation (include the type of feedback involved and the key hormones)
d. Label ovulation
67. Early development:
a. What is cleavage?
b. Draw and describe each of the following:
i. a fertilized egg:
ii. a four-cell stage:
iii. a morula:
iv. blastula:
68. Using the diagrams below, do the following:
a. Label the stigma
i. Provide its function:
b. Label the anther
i. Provide its function:
c. Label the pollen tube
i. Provide its function:
d. Label the ovule
i. Provide its function:
And what is the best way to study? I only have three weeks to cover some 1500 pages of intro to biology (BIO 181 and BIO 183)?
Here is the sample exams:
Biology 183 Print Name__________________________
Spring 2000
2/15/00
Lecture Exam I
Matching: Each answer is used only once. Please write answer legibly to the left of the number. 2 points each
_____ 1. Stigma A. animal that functions reproductively as both male and female at the same time
_____ 2. Sequential hermaphrodite B. Within a pollen grain, will develop into 2 sperm cells
_____ 3. Generative cell C. Haploid cells produced within the sporangia of the anther via meiosis
_____ 4. Simultaneous hermaphrodite
D. Tip of female reproductive organ of a flower, often sticky to receive pollen
_____ 5. Ovary E. Diploid cell within sporangium which undergoes meiosis to form female gametes in a flower
_____ 6. Microspore F. In flowers, portion of carpel in which egg-containing ovules develop
_____ 7. Polar nuclei G. Within the embryo sac of a flower, when fertilized, becomes a 3n cell
_____ 8. Suspensor H. Column of cells that feeds embryo with nutrients absorbed from endosperm
_____ 9. Megasporocyte I. Long slender stalk of female reproductive organ of a flower, leading to ovule
_____ 10. Style J. Animal that functions reproductively as one sex and then the other.
Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each. Please circle your answer or
write the letter out to the left-hand side. 2 points each
11. When does crossing over start to take place?
A. Prophase I
B. Anaphase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Prophase II
E. Anaphase II
12. The male gametophyte of an angiosperm contains two diploid cells. One of these
cells is the __________________ which divides to produce two sperm cells (nuclei):
A. Tube cell
B. Microsporocyte
C. Spermatocyte
D. Generative Cell
13. In angiosperms, the embryo develops through progressively larger stages that are
identified by their shape. The stage where seedling leaves (cotylegons) are just
beginning to develop is the
A. globular shape
B. heart shape
C. torpedo shape
D. meristem shape
14. Homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of a dividing cell during
A. mitosis
B. meiosis I
C. meiosis II
D. fertilization
E. fission
15. Cytoplasmic components (mRNA, ribosomes, proteins) of the egg cell have
significant effects on the development of
A. angiosperm embryos
B. mammalian embryos
C. both angiosperms and mammals
D. neither
16. Gender change in the bluehead wrasse always is from female to male. This form of
gender changeis known as:
A. Heterogamy
B. Protogyny
C. Protandry
D. Asexual
17. Angiosperms are sexually reproducing organisms that have a type of life cycle called
alternation of generations. In this life cycle, meiosis occurs in the
A. Ovule
B. Zygote
C. Anther
D. Structures named in both A and C
18. Sexual reproduction occurs in many different species of organis. Which
characteristic do ALL sexually reproducing organisms have in common?
A. separate diploid (2n) male and female parents
B. formation of ovaries and testes
C. production of gametophytes
D. meiotic cell division
19. A seed develops from
A. an ovum B. an embryo C. an ovary D. a pollen grain E. an ovule
20. A plant that is self-incompatible has a genotype S5S9 for the S-locus. It receives
pollen from a plant that is S3S9. Which of the following is most likely to occur?
A. all of the pollen will germinate, forming pollen tubes
B. about half of the pollen will germinate
C. none of the pollen will germinate
21. The germinating pollen grain produces a pollen tube that delivers two sperm cells
(nuclei) into the embryo sac. Double fertilization takes place and produces the:
A. megaspore and microspore
B. zygote and endosperm
C. gametophyte and sporophyte
D. endoderm and mesoderm
22. Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during
A. the flow phase of the menstrual cycle
B. the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
C. the period surrounding ovulation
D. the end of the corpus luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
23. The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in the
A. formation of a fertilization membrane
B. production of a fast block to polyspermy
C. release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell
D. generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell
E. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei
24. There are several analogies (similarities) of sexual reproduction and embryonic
development in mammals and angiosperms. Which of the following is a correct analogy
in these two types of organisms:
A. organs develop in both the mammalian embryo and the angiosperm embryo
B. both types of embryos use stored food during development
C. cell migration in both types of embryos produces the germ (primary) tissue layers.
D. the analogies described in both A and B are correct
25. Which phase of meoisis is being described by the following sentence?
Centromeres of sister chromatids separate and each sister (now individual chromosomes)
move toward opposite poles of the cell.
A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II
Fill in the Blank: please write the one word answer in the space provided. 3 points
each (spelling counts)
26. Microspore is to pollen as ____________________ is to embryo sac.
27. The very familiar dimorphic pattern of sexual reproduction where ther is a distinct
female and male parent is referred to as ______________________.
28. The type of sequential hermaphrodite wher the organism is a male first and then
changes to a female as it gets older and larger is called _____________________.
29. The tip of the sperm cell head contains enzymes and other proteins to help it break
through the egg membrane. This tip is called the _______________________.
30. In angiosperms, the diploid microsporocyte undergoes __________________ to form
4 haploid microspores.
31. Sperm + 2 polar nuclei = ____________________.
32. In males, FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells to continue __________________.
33. In sea urchins, the release of Ca++ and the subsequent hardening of the fertilization
membrane is the __________________ reaction.
34. After fertilization, cleavage of the zygote forms a solid sphere of cells known as the
______________________.
35. As development and cell migration of the embryo continue, the hollowed ball of cells
becomes a 3-layered structure known as the ________________________.
Short Answer Essay: 3-4 sentences, can be in the form of lists or drawn figures if
appropriate. 5 points each
36. Describe 2 kinds of asexual reproduction and give an example of an animal or plant
for each.
37. In mammalian reproduction, the fusion of egg and sperm yields the zygote. Identify
and describe the stages and processes that lead to an embryo that contains 3 germ
(primary) tissue layers.
Bonus Questions
1. The name of my lab instructor is ________________________ (first name is fine).
(1 point)
2. Name any two basketball players (men or women) playing for NCState this year.
________________________ (1 point)
________________________ (1 point)
3. Name any two teams (other that NCState) in the Atlantic Coast Conference.
________________________ (1 point)
________________________ (1 point)
I have neither given nor received unauthorized help on this exam.
____________________________
Student Signature
Biology 183 Print Name__________________________
Spring 2000
03/09/00
Lecture Exam II
Matching: Each answer is used only once. Please write legibly to the left of the number. 2 points each.
_____ 1. Gastrin A. Number of NADH molecules formed per pyruvic acid molecule in the Krebs cycle
_____ 2. Lipase B. Responsible for digesting starches in the mouth and small intestine
_____ 3. Ten C. Number of NADH molecules formed per pyruvic acid molecule in the Krebs cycle
_____ 4. Four D. Inherits peristalsis in stomach
_____ 5. GIP E. Produces 3 ATP per molecule in the electron transport chain
_____ 6. Three F. Stimulates the pancreatic and gall bladder release of enzymes and bile
_____ 7. Amylase G. Total (not net #) of ATPs generated in glycolysis
_____ 8. NADH H. Responsible for digesting fats in the small intestine
_____ 9. Two I. Number of FADH2 molecules formed per glucose molecule in the Krebs cycle
_____ 10. CCK J. Number of NADH molecules formed per glucose molecule in glycolysis, pyruvic acid conversion, and Krebs cycle combined.
Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each. Please circle your answer or write the letter out to the left-hand side. 2 points each
11. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
Pyruvate + NADH + H+ lactate + NAD+
A. oxygen D. lactate
B. NADH E. pyruvate
C. NAD+
12. Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration?
A. Krebs cycle
B. electron transport chain
C. glycolysis
D. synthesis of acetyl CoA from pyruvate
E. reduction of pyruvate to lactate
13. The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in oxidative phosphorylation is
A. oxygen
B. water
C. NAD+
D. pyruvate
E. ADP
14. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle with
A. light energy
B. CO2 and ATP
C. H2O and NADPH
D. ATP and NADPH
E. sugar and O2
15. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
A. NADPH O2 CO2
B. NADPH chlorophyll Calvin cycle
C. NADPH electron transport chain O2
D. H2O photosystem I photosystem II
E. H2O NADPH Calvin cycle
16. Which of the following statements is a correct distinction between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
A. Only heterotrophs require chemical compounds from the environment
B. Cellular respiration is unique to heterotrophs
C. Only heterotrophs have mitochondria
D. Only autotrophs can nourish themselves beginning with CO2 and other nutrients that are entirely inorganic
E. Only heterotrophs require oxygen
17. During glycolysis and cellular respiration, 2 ATP are consumed to get the process started. At which step does this occur?
A. glycolysis
B. Pyruvate conversion
C. Krebs Cycle
D. Electron Transport Chain
18. Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein will drain first into the
A. vena cava
B. left atrium
C. right atrium
D. left ventricle
E. right ventricle
19. The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by
A. chloroplasts
B. parenchyma cells
C. guard cells
D. thylakoids
20. Chloroplast b are yellow-green and have what function?
A. absorb and dissipate light for photoprotection
B. acts as the primary e- acceptor
C. broadens the spectrum of light that can drive photosynthesis
21. Which organism would have the fastest heart rate?
A. crocodile
B. fish
C. snake
D. bird
22. The electron vacancies in the photosystem II reaction center are filled by
A. transfer of e- from NADPH
B. splitting of H2O molecule
C. formation of glucose in the Calvin Cycle
D. transfer of e- from cytochrome complex
23. Cyclic e-flow
A. allows more NADPH to be synthesized for use in the Calvin Cycle
B. allows e- to fill hole in P700 left by light energy exciting e- to higher energy level
C. allows production of O2 for release into the atmosphere
D. allows more ATP to be synthesized for use in the Calvin Cycle
24. Gases, nutrients, and waste products are exchanged between cells and blood vessels at
A. capillaries
B. veins
C. arteries
D. heart
25. The metabolic pathway that will continue whether or not oxygen is present is
A. glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. electron transport chain
C. B and C
26. The Calvin Cycle takes place in the
A. thylakoids
B. epidermis
C. grana
D. stroma
27. In Phase 1 (carbon fixation) of the Calvin Cycle, CO2 molecules diffuse through the stomata and bind to
A. Glucose
B. RuBP
C. ATP
D. H2O
28. Fungus, which is an example of an organism that feeds on dead and decaying organic material, can be described as a(n)
A. absorptive feeder
B. suspension feeder
C. substrate feeder
D. fluid feeder
29. If two organisms were roughly the same size, which one would probably have the longer digestive tract?
A. carnivore
B. herbivore
C. absorptive feeder
D. substrate feeder
30. The Weddell seal is adapted to sustained underwater swimming due to all of the following EXCEPT
A. has more blood volume /kg body weight
B. has the ability to stockpile oxygenated blood in its spleen
C. can increase O2 consumption rate by decreasing metabolism
D. has increased myoglobin to store O2 in muscles
Fill in the Blank: Please write the answer in the space provided. 3 points each
31. The ____________________________ in the fish gill ensures a constant gradient of O2 which increases the efficiency of O2 uptake.
32. Air enters an insect’s tracheae through body surface openings called ____________.
33. In terrestrial vertebrates, systemic circulation pumps oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissues and _____________________ pumps deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
34. ________________________ occurs in the mitochondria using acteyl CoA to make ATP, CO2, NADH, and FADH2.
35. In a four-chambered heart, the ______________________ pumps with the highest pressure and therefore has the thickest muscle layer.
36. Thylakoids, containing chlorophyll and stacked into granum, are surrounded by a dense fluid called ______________________.
37. _______________________ tend to have longer intestines than carnivores of similar size.
38. _______________________ are triggered to open by light, depletion of CO2, and an internal biological clock.
39. If cardiac output is 10L/min and heart rate is 100 beats/min, then stroke volume is _____________________. (must use correct units to get full credit)
40. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain are examples of _________________________, a breakdown or release of energy.
Short Answer Essay: 3-4 sentences, can be in the form of lists or drawn figures if appropriate. 5 points each
41. Describe non-cyclic electron flow.
42. Describe 3 reasons why the oxygen-hemoglobin binding affinity would be less.
Bonus Essay: Up to 5 points
Trace deoxygenated blood from veins to lungs in a mammalian heart.
Biology 183
Fall 2000
11/16/00
Lecture Exam III
Matching: Each answer is used only once. Please write legibly to the left of the number. 2 points each.
_____1. TSH A. responsible for seed and bud germination, stem and leaf growth (remember foolish seedling disease)
_____2. Growth Hormone B. promotes cell enlargement by plasticizing cell wall
_____3. Cortisol C. hormone released from the pituitary, targeting the thyroid gland
_____4. Insulin D. response to light, controlled by auxins and biological clocks in part
_____5. IAA E. stimulates metabolism, needed for molting, metamorphosis, and growth
_____6. Gravitropism F. helps maintain blood glucose homeostasis, increases glucose uptake by cells
_____7. Gibberellins G. primarily seen in plant roots, helps orient them toward soil
_____8. Thyroid Hormone H. stimulates skeletal and tissue growth, triggered by hpothalamus release of GHRH
_____9. Abscisic Acid I. Inhibits plant growth, protects dormant bud in winter, closes stomata in times of water stress
_____10. Phototropism J. released in response to long-term stress
Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each. Please circle your answer or write the letter out to the left-hand side. 2 points each.
11. Some plants are triggered to flower by the increasing time of daylight. The signal for flowering could be released experimentally earlier than normal in a long-day plant to flashes of
A. green light during the night B. red light during the night
C. green light during the day D. far red light during the day
E. red light during the day
12. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the anterior pituitary?
A. LH
B. FSH
C. GH
D. prolactin
E. TH
13. The key difference between an ectotherm and an endotherm is that
A. ectotherms generate energy mainly from fermentation, endotherms mainly from cellular respiration
B. ectotherms are mostly aquatic animals, endotherms are mostly terrestrial
C. ectotherms warm their bodies mainly by absorbing environmental heat, endotherms mainly use metabolic heat to warm their bodies
D. ectotherms are "cold-blooded" animals with body temperatures that cannot reach the high body temperatures of endotherms
E. ectotherms are all invertebrates, endotherms are all vertebrates
14. Which of the following correctly describes a case of osmoregulation?
A. body fluids that are isoosmotic with the external environment
B. discharge of excess water in a hypoosmotic environment
C. excretion of salt in a hypoosmotic environment
D. expenditure of energy to convert ammonia to less toxic wastes
E. secretion of drugs and reabsorption of nutrients by the proximal tubule
15. The majority of water and salt filtered in the nephron is reabsorbed by
A. the transport epithelia of the proximal tubule
B. diffusion from the descending limb of the loop of Henle into the hyperosmotic interstitial fluid of the medulla
C. active transport across the transport epithelium of the thick upper segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
D. selective secretion and diffusion across the distal tubule
E. diffusion from the collecting duct into the increasing osmotic gradient of the renal medulla
16. Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about hormones?
A. hormones are chemical messengers that travel to target cells through the circulatory system.
B. hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions
C. hormones are secreted by specialized cells usually located in endocrine glands
D. hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same general function
E. hormones are often regulated through feedback loops
17. A distinctive feature of the mechanism of action of steroid hormones is that
A. these hormones are regulated by feedback loops
B. target cells react more rapidly to these hormones than to local regulators
C. these hormones affect metabolism
D. these hormones bind with specific receptor proteins on target-cell plasma membranes
E. these hormones bind to cytoplasmic receptors
18. Which of the following occurs when a stimulus depolarizes a neuron's membrane?
A. Na+ diffuses out of the cell.
B. The action potential approaches zero.
C. The membrane potential changes from the resting potential to a voltage closer to the threshold potential.
D. The depolarization is all or none.
E. The inside of the cell becomes more negative in charge relative to the outside of the cell.
19. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are located on the
A. tips of axon
B. axon membranes in the regions of the nodes of Ranvier
C. postsynaptic membrane
D. membranes of synaptic vesicles
E. presynaptic membrane
20. Environmental factors will trigger various growth substances to be released in plants. Which of the following is typically not an environmental stress?
A. Change in temperature
B. Change in light
C. Lack of Nitrogen in soil
D. Lack of Oxygen in soil
21. Transpirational pull in a plant depends on all of the following EXCEPT
A. bulk flow
B. cohesion
C. adhesion
D. diffusion
22. Which of the following evolutionary trends occurs in the vertebrate brain?
A. Increasing sophistication and complexity of the hindbrain
B. Relative size of the brain increases in reptiles and birds
C. Relative size of the brain increases in birds and mammals
D. More sophisticated behavior is associated with a decrease in size of the cerebrum
23. Myelin sheaths are formed from
A. dendrites
B. axons
C. glia
D. nodes of Ranvier
24. ADH acts on the nephron by
A. decreasing the # of water channels on the proximal tubule
B. decreasing the # of water channels on the collecting duct
C. increasing the # of water channels on the proximal tubule
D. increasing the # of water channels on the collecting duct
25. The distal convoluted tubule receives filtrate directly from the
A. proximal convoluted tubule
B. ascending limb of the loop of Henle
C. descending limb of the loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
26. At the proximal tubule, all of the following are absorbed EXCEPT
A. urea
B. Na+
C. H20
D. Glucose
27. This growth substance was discovered in rice plants infected with a fungus. This fungus promoted growth without maturation and led to the rice plants growing taller and eventually tipping over without producing any rice.
A. auxin
B. cytokinins
C. abscisic acid
D. ethylene
E. gibberellins
28. Unlike an earthworm’s metanephridia, a mammalian nephron
A. forms urine by changing the composition of fluid inside the tubule
B. functions in both osmoregulation and the excretion of nitrogenous wastes
C. is intimately associated with a capillary network
D. has a transport epithelium
E. processes blood instead of coelomic fluid
29. Amphibians regulate body temperature almost exclusively by
A. countercurrent blood flow
B. sweating and panting
C. moving to favorable sites
D. decreasing or increasing metabolism
30. Most aquatic animals, including many fishes, eliminate their nitrogenous wastes in the form of
A. ammonia
B. urea
C. uric acid
D. proteins
Fill in the Blank: please write the answer in the space provided. 3 points each.
31. __________________ is a substance in plants which degrades cell walls, decreases chlorophyll, and triggers fruit ripening.
32. If a plant is undergoing heat stress and its water supply is plentiful, the plant will increase ___________________ to alleviate this stress.
33. _________________ are organisms that absorb heat from their surroundings because they are unable to generate enough heat through metabolism.
34. The ________________ is a ball of capillaries inside Bowman's capsule which leads to the proximal tubule.
35. The __________________________ (be specific) is the part of the nephron which is relatively impermeable to salt and therefore, the filtrate increases in osmolality at this stage of the filtration process.
36. The waxy barrier separating the cortex from the endodermic vascular tissue in a plant is known as the ____________________________.
37. Water and minerals absorbed by the roots and traveling to the vascular tissue via the cytoplasm is known as the __________________ route.
38. The ________________ are short, tapered, and branched and are the parts of the neuron that receive the sensory input.
39. ____________________ wrap around the axons like insulation and help increase the velocity of action potential propogation.
40. The _____________________ is the time that no matter how large the stimulus, another action potential cannot occur because the Na+ inactivation gate is closed.
Short Answer Essay: 3-4 sentences, can be in the form of lists or drawn figures if appropriate. 5 points each.
41. Describe the mechanism of action of a peptide hormone. Start with the peptide being released into the circulatory system and end with the biological effect being triggered.
42. Describe an action potential (drawing is appropriate) labeling the depolarization, repolarization, undershoot, and resting state. When are channels open and closed?
Bonus Question: 5 points
Describe how chemical communication (chemical synapse) occurs starting with the action potential reaching the end of an axon and finishing with the action potential being propagated to the next neuron.
1. Sex-linked disorders such as color blindness and hemophilia are:
a. expressed only in men
b. caused by genes on the X chromosome
c. caused by genes on the autosome
d. caused by genes on the Y chromosome
e. both answers a and b are correct
2. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive trait. Imagine that your friend Roger has cystic fibrosis but that his parents do not. What do you know about Roger's alleles and those of his parents at the cystic fibrosis locus of their DNA?
a. This information is insufficient to allow me to conclude anything about the cystic fibrosis alleles in the DNA of Roger's parents.
b. Roger is heterozygous and his parents are homozygous at the cystic fibrosis locus.
c. Roger is homozygous and his parents are heterozygous at the cystic fibrosis locus.
d. This information is insufficient to allow me to conclude anything about the cystic fibrosis alleles in Roger’s DNA.
3. Some people are said to be "carriers" of genetic disorders. What does this mean?
a. The individual is heterozygous for the disorder, and the allele for the disorder is dominant.
b. The individual is heterozygous for the disorder, and the allele for the disorder is recessive.
c. The individual is homozygous for the disorder, but is protected by the presence of an immunity gene.
d. The individual is homozygous for the disorder.
4. The following represents the inheritance of dentogenesis imperfecta. Which of the following is true?
a. This is a dominant; sex-linked trait
b. This is a dominant; autosomal trait
c. The father is heterozygous
d. All of the above
e. Answers b and c are correct
5. Which of the following best describes alternation of generations, the life cycle employed by most land plants?
a. A haploid adult produces haploid gametes by meiosis, which fuse at fertilization and produce a new diploid adult via mitosis.
b. A diploid organism produces haploid cells (spores) by meiosis, and these cells divide by mitosis to produce a haploid organism that produces haploid gametes by mitosis.
c. A diploid adult produces haploid gametes by meiosis, which fuse at fertilization and produce a new diploid adult via mitosis
d. A diploid cell undergoes meiosis to produce a haploid cell that produces a haploid adult by mitosis. The adult then produces haploid gametes by mitosis
6. The principal function of the petals of a flower is to:
a. produce pollen grains
b. produce the female gametophyte
c. attract pollinators
d. protect the flower body
7. A seed contains each of the following except a(n):
a. Seed coat
b. Stoma
c. Food source
d. Embryonic plant
8. In the life cycle of a plant, spores are produced by the:
a. Sporophyte
b. Gametes
c. Eggs
d. Gametophyte
9. Which of the following is true of double fertilization?
a. One sperm cell fuses with the tube cell to form the embryo, and a second sperm cell fuses with a generative cell to form the endosperm.
b. Double fertilization is a rare event in flowering plants that results in the production of two identical embryos.
c. The first fertilization event results in the production of a zygote, and a second fertilization event occurs several days or weeks later to produce a second zygote, which degenerates to the endosperm.
d. One sperm cell fuses with the egg to form a zygote, and a second sperm cell fuses with the polar nucleus to form the endosperm.
10. Which of the following characteristics differentiates a retrovirus from other types of viruses?
a. Glycoproteins
b. viral envelope
c. RNA
d. reverse transcriptase
11. Some viruses use the host cell to produce an outer shell of glycoproteins. They are known as:
a. Retroviruses
b. Enveloped viruses
c. Lytic viruses
d. Bacteriophages
12. Organisms which come in various shapes and sizes, can live virtually anywhere, are unicellular, prokaryotic, can reproduce on their own, and can be either beneficial or pathogenic:
a. Viruses
b. Protozoans
c. Bacteria
d. Bacteriophages
13. Tanya vacationed in Zaire, Africa this past summer. During her stay, she was warned about a virus that causes hemorrhagic fever and a rash. This virus is 50-90% fatal and is called:
a. Ebola
b. HIV
c. Hantavirus
d. Lyme’s disease
14. I used to conduct research with deer mice, mostly looking for their nests. I should have been careful, because there is a virus that is transmitted by direct contact with an infected mouse’s nest or droppings. This virus can cause fever, severe muscle aches, and respiratory distress. There is no known cure or treatment. It’s called:
a. Ebola
b. HIV
c. Hantavirus
d. SARS
15. Currently, we are seeing threats from a type of virus transmitted by infected poultry. It causes fever, cough, severe respiratory distress, but it’s not easily transmitted from person-to-person:
a. SARS
b. Hantavirus
c. Avian Influenza
d. Ebola
16. Martin had some home-canned food the night before, and he developed a high fever and droopy lips and eyes. He is most likely suffering from:
a. Tetanus
b. Botulism
c. Lyme’s disease
d. Hantavirus
17. Larry was out working on his farm, when he stepped on a rusty nail. A few days later he started suffering from muscular spasms, mainly in the back and the jaw—his body could not relax. When he went to the doctor, his diagnosis was:
a. Botulism
b. Lyme’s disease
c. Ebola
d. Tetanus
18. Cindy was out hiking in the Northeast when she noticed some ticks on her body. She removed them and didn’t think much about it. Later, she noticed a bull’s-eye rash on her lower back. She’s probably contracted which disease?
a. Botulism
b. Lyme’s disease
c. Ebola
d. Tetanus
19. A bacterium, which poses threats for bioterrorism, is found in the ground and is primarily a risk to herbivores. Infection is through direct exposure to the infected animal and it cannot be transmitted from person to person. It can be contracted through the skin—cutaneous infection, or through inhalation:
a. Botulinum
b. Anthrax
c. Tetanus
d. Lyme’s
20. Which hormone stimulates the ovulation event?
a. HCG
b. Estrogen
c. LH
d. Progesterone
21. What type of asexual reproduction involves haploid eggs maturing into haploid adults?
a. Budding
b. Parthenogenesis
c. Fragmentation
d. Fission
22. Which of the following events must occur to maximize the likelihood of a successful mating, if the mating is outside the bodies of the parents?
a. A special spermatophore must be produced by the male.
b. Sperm and eggs must be released at the same time.
c. Sperm and eggs must be released within the same limited area
d. Both b and c answers are correct
23. During oogenesis, what would you predict is the functional advantage of the production of only one "large" viable egg, as opposed to four "small" viable eggs?
a. A large egg has more cytoplasm and nutrients, increasing the chance that a fertilized egg will complete development.
b. A large egg is easier for sperm to penetrate.
c. It takes less energy to produce one large viable egg.
d. None of the above responses are correct.
24. The allantois is an extraembryonic membrane to carry out which function:
a. Gas exchange
b. Waste removal
c. Protection
d. Nourishment
25. By the end of gastrulation:
a. The positions of the body’s axes are established
b. The gut has formed
c. The embryonic tissues are arranged in layers
d. All of the above
26. Repetitive segments which develop during organogenesis:
a. Somites
b. Neural crests
c. Blastomeres
d. Neural plates
27. During oocyte maturation, the oocyte remains suspended in which meiotic phase until fertilization occurs?
a. Meiosis I prophase
b. Meiosis II prophase
c. Meiosis I metaphase
d. Meiosis II metaphase
28. Fertilization occurs in the:
a. Fallopian tubes (oviduct)
b. Endometrium
c. Uterus
d. Vagina
29. Which of the following is the hormone secreted during labor under the stimulus of high estrogen levels.
a. Oxytocin
b. Progesterone
c. HCG
d. GnRH
30. Implantation of the fertilized egg occurs in the ___ and the stage of development is ___:
a. Oviduct; four-cell stage
b. Endometrium; blastocyst
c. Corpus luteum; blastocyst
d. Uterus; morula
31. The embryo implants itself using which structure:
a. Trophoblast
b. Trophomore
c. Placenta
d. Villi
32. Over-the-counter pregnancy tests test for concentrations of which hormone?
a. GnRH
b. LH
c. FSH
d. HCG
33. Before the placenta is fully developed, the embryo receives nourishment from the:
a. Chorion
b. Endometrium
c. Corpus luteum
d. Amnion
34. Which structure adds the final secretions to semen as it moves out of the male reproductive tract?
a. Epididymis
b. Seminal vesicle
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral gland
Part II—Short answers, matching, fill-in-the-blanks, diagram identification
35. Geneticists study patterns of inheritance in human families to learn about genetic diseases. A chart showing how a trait is inherited over several generations of a family is called a ____________________.
36. A particle between 0.05 and 0.2 microns containing genetic material enclosed in a protein coat is called a ___________________________.
37. ___________________________ is a kind of virus that can infect bacteria.
38. ______________________________ is a type of retrovirus which attacks helper T-cells, therefore crippling the immune system.
39. The embryo sac is contained within the __________, which is located inside the __________.
40. In flowering plants, the male gametophyte is known as the _____________ and it is composed of the following two structures:_______________________.
41. _____________________________ occurs when a pollen grain lands on a stigma
42. ________________________________are the parts of a plant embryo that absorb food molecules from the endosperm
43. The ________________________________________ secretes LH and FSH
44. The ovarian structure that secretes both progesterone and estrogen is ______________________.
45. Enzymes from the sperm digest protective layers that surround the egg. These enzymes are housed in the ___________________________ of the sperm?
46. In humans, spermatogenesis yields ___________________ sperm for each diploid sex cell, and oogenesis yields _______________ secondary oocyte(s) for each sex cell.
47. During the _________________ phase in the ovaries, the secondary oocyte is getting ready for ovulation. Which uterine phase(s) overlap with this ovarian phase?____ _________________________________
48. At the onset of puberty, testosterone is produced in the _________________ under direct control of the ______________________, which is produced in the anterior pituitary gland.
49. The developmental phase which follows gastrulation and is marked by the development of rudimentary organs is known as ________________________________.
50. The combined processes of cleavage and gastrulation are known as ________ ______________________.
51. Birds and fish both have a lot of yolk and. We call this side of the developing embryo the __________________ pole.
52. ______________________ is caused by signal molecules from nearby cells which trigger observable cellular changes through gene expression in the target cell
53. The unfertilized egg has ______________________ that regulate the expression of genes that affect the developmental fate of the cell.
54. Anne Boleyn, King Henry VIII's second wife, was beheaded because she did not provide him with a son as an heir. Why should King Henry have blamed himself and not his wife? Explain.
55. Mr. and Mrs. Smith have just arrived home with their new baby. As soon as they walk in the door, they get a call from the hospital maternity ward. The nurse who discharged the Smiths is calling to say she is now worried that she sent them home with the wrong baby. They return to the hospital for a battery of blood tests to clear up the confusion. Help them interpret the results of the blood test. Could baby Emma be their daughter? Why or why not?
Individual
ABO Blood Type
MN Blood Type Hemoglobin Type
(H—normal; h—mutant hemoglobin, sickle cell)
Mr. Smith Type A MM Hh
Mrs. Smith Type B MN HH
Baby Emma Type O NN Hh
Note—Both blood type systems are examples of codominance and sickle-cell anemia is an example of an autosomal recessive trait that also exhibits codominance. Those people with Hh make both normal and defective hemoglobin (they suffer some symptoms, but those who are hh suffer severe detrimental effects).
56. The following is a pedigree of a family with Huntington’s disease.
a. Write the possible genotypes of the initial parents.
b. Would you say that this trait is dominant or recessive? Explain.
c. Would you say that this trait is autosomal or sex-linked? Explain.
57. How are viruses able to reproduce when they lack the organelles needed to create new genetic material and protein coats?
58. List two distinguishing characteristics of viruses:
59. Bacteriophages can be lytic or lysogenic. Explain the difference.
60. Using the figure below, explain double fertilization. (Make sure to include the following terms in your description—pollen grain, pollen tube cell, sperm cells, endosperm, polar bodies, egg, haploid, diploid, triploid.)
61. In the following diagram showing fertilization of a mammalian egg cell by a sperm cell:
a. Label the following structures:
i. Egg
ii. zona pellucida
iii. sperm
b. Label and explain the acrosomal reaction
c. Label and explain the cortical reaction
62. The drug RU-486 (“abortion pill”) blocks progesterone receptors in the uterus. Based on your knowledge of the female reproductive cycle, why does this drug terminate pregnancy in humans, even after implantation has occurred?
63. The male reproductive structures that are found within the scrotal sac are responsible for the formation of sperm. Use the following diagram to do the following:
• Label the structures on the image below (a-d).
• What are sertoli cells?
• What are Leydig cells?
64. Use the diagram below to do the following:
a. Indicate the phase of development depicted in the diagram below
b. Label the indicated parts:
c. Define each labeled part
65. Reproductive Structures:
Label and give the function or describe the following on the diagram below:
i. Corpus luteum—
ii. Follicle—
iii. Maturing oocyte—
iv. Graafian follicle—
v. Ovulation—
Follicular phase—
Luteal phase—
66. On the following diagram of the female reproductive cycle:
a. Label the follicular phase, luteal phase, secretory phase, and the corpus luteum.
b. Explain what happens during the luteal phase
c. Explain what triggers ovulation (include the type of feedback involved and the key hormones)
d. Label ovulation
67. Early development:
a. What is cleavage?
b. Draw and describe each of the following:
i. a fertilized egg:
ii. a four-cell stage:
iii. a morula:
iv. blastula:
68. Using the diagrams below, do the following:
a. Label the stigma
i. Provide its function:
b. Label the anther
i. Provide its function:
c. Label the pollen tube
i. Provide its function:
d. Label the ovule
i. Provide its function:
That's a lot of stuff. And, sheesh, much of it is really detailed. Wow, you're giving me quite some homework here but I'll try to give you the answers on these. 
